Chapter 3
Next to the place before considered, that which is urged with most confidence and pressed with most importunity for the defense of the general ransom is 1 John 2:1-2: 'If any man sin, we have an Advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous, and he is a propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only, but also for the sins of the whole world.' The weight of the whole argument hangs upon this, that the Apostle affirms Christ to be a propitiation for the sins of the whole world — which, say they, manifestly means all and every one in the world, and that:
First, from the words themselves without any wresting: for what can be signified by the whole world but all men in the world?
Second, from the opposition that is made between 'world' and 'believers' — all believers being comprised in the first part of the Apostle's assertion that Christ is a propitiation for our sins, and therefore by the world opposed to them, all others are understood.
Before I come to the fuller clarification of the mind of the Holy Spirit in these words, I must say that I might answer the objection from hence very briefly, and yet so solidly as quite to cut off all the caviling exceptions of our adversaries — namely, that as by 'the world' in other places men living in the world are denoted, so by 'the whole world' in this can nothing be understood but men living throughout the whole world, in all the parts and regions thereof, in opposition to the inhabitants of any one nation, place, or country as such, as the redeemed of Christ are said to be (Revelation 5:9). But because they much boast of this place, I shall with God's assistance so open the sense and meaning of it that it shall appear to all how little reason they have to place any confidence in their wrested interpretation of it.
To make out the sense of this place, three things are to be considered: first, to whom the Apostle writes; second, what is his purpose and aim in this particular place; third, the meaning of those two expressions — Christ being a propitiation, and the whole world. Having done this, according to the analogy of faith, the scope of this and other parallel places, and the use of the words themselves, we shall easily manifest by undeniable reasons that the text cannot be so understood as it is urged and wrested for universal redemption.
First, a discovery of those to whom the epistle was particularly directed will give some light into the meaning of the Apostle. Although this and all other parts of divine scripture were given for the use, benefit, and direction of the whole church, yet that many parts of it were directed to particular churches and persons is evident. Now though we have nothing expressly nominating those to whom this epistle was primarily directed, yet by clear and evident deduction it may be made more than probable that it was intended for the Jews or believers of the circumcision. For first, John was in a peculiar manner a minister and apostle to the Jews, and therefore they were the most immediate and proper objects of his care — James, Cephas, and John gave to Paul and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship that they should go to the Gentiles and themselves to the circumcision (Galatians 2:9). Now as Peter and James, in the prosecution of their apostleship toward them, wrote epistles to them in their dispersion (James 1:1; 1 Peter 1:1), as Paul did to all the chief churches among the Gentiles by him planted, so it is more than probable that John writing this epistle directed it chiefly and in the first place to those who were chiefly and in the first place the objects of his care and apostleship.
Second, he frequently intimates that those to whom he wrote were of those who heard and received the word from the beginning, as twice in this chapter (verse 7): 'That commandment which you heard from the beginning.' Now that the proclamation of the gospel had its beginning among the Jews, and its first entrance with them before the conversion of any of the Gentiles — which was a mystery for a season — is apparent from the story of the Acts of the Apostles (chapters 1-6, 12). 'To the Jew first and then to the Greek' was the order divinely appointed (Romans 1:16-17).
Third, the opposition the Apostle makes between 'us' and 'the world' in this very place is sufficient to show to whom he wrote. As a Jew, he reckons himself with and among the believing Jews to whom he wrote, and sets himself with them in opposition to the residue of believers in the world. This is a pattern of speaking common with this Apostle — and how he is to be understood is declared in his Gospel at John 11:51-52.
Fourthly, the frequent mention and cautions he makes of false teachers, seducers, and Antichrists — who in those first days were, if not all of them, yet for the greatest part, of the circumcision — evidently declares that to those in especial was this Epistle directed. He is a propitiation for our sins, that is, our sins who are believers of the Jews; and not for ours only, but for the sins of the whole world, that is, the children of God throughout the world, of what Nation, Kindred, Tongue, or Language soever they were. So that we have not here an opposition between the effectual salvation of all believers, and the effectual Redemption which belonged to the Jews believers, to all other believers, or children of God throughout the whole world.
The aim of the Apostle being to make out consolation to believers in their failings, he can speak of none but them only: and if he should extend that whereof he speaks, namely that Christ was a propitiation, to all and every one, I cannot perceive how this can possibly make anything to the end proposed, or the consolation of believers. For what comfort can arise from hence to them, by telling them that Christ died for innumerable that shall be damned? The children's bread must not be cast to dogs.
The meaning and purport of the word 'Propitiation,' which Christ is said to be for us and the whole world, is next to be considered. The word propitiation signifies that which was done or typically effected by the mercy seat, namely to appease, pacify, and reconcile God, in respect of his turning away for sin. Christ is said to be the mercy seat because it was placed upon the Ark and covered it; God thereby declaring himself to be pacified or reconciled, the cause of anger and enmity being hidden. Whether God can be tolerably said to be a propitiation for the whole world, taking it for all and every man in the world — are the sins of every one expiated? Is God reconciled to every one? Is every sinner pardoned? — let all the men in the world that are able, judge. Doubtless all these things are true of every believer, and of no one else in the whole world.
Fourth, let us consider the phrase 'the whole world.' I will not here fully declare how the word 'world' is of various meanings in scripture, partly because I have already done so to some degree, and partly because it is not so much the word itself that is insisted upon here but only with reference to its general adjunct 'whole' — the whole world. Concerning this expression I say:
First, whereas this expression, with its equivalent 'all the world,' is used seven or eight times in the New Testament, it cannot be made to appear clearly and undeniably that in any place it comprises all and every man in the world. Unless some circumstance in this particular place enforces that sense — which it does not — it will be a plain wresting of the words to force that interpretation upon them. Let us briefly look at the places. Revelation 3:10: 'I will keep you from the hour of temptation which shall come upon the whole world' — where it cannot signify all and every one, because some are promised to be preserved from what is said to come upon it. Colossians 1:6: 'Which is come unto you as in all the world' — where first, all and every man cannot be understood, for they had not all then received the gospel; and second, only believers are here signified living abroad in the world, because the gospel is said to bring forth fruit in them to whom it comes, and there is no true gospel fruit without faith and repentance. Romans 1:8: 'Their faith is spoken of in the whole world' — did every one in the world hear and speak of the Roman faith? Luke 2:1: 'There went a decree from Augustus Caesar that the whole world should be taxed' — which yet was but the Roman Empire, far short of comprising all singular persons in the world. If then the expression itself does not hold out any such universality as is pretended, unless the matter and circumstances of the place require it — and neither does so here — there is no ground to fasten such an interpretation upon it. Rather we may conclude that 'all the world' and 'the whole world,' being in other places taken indefinitely for men of all sorts throughout the world, are no otherwise to be understood here.
Second, 'the whole world' can signify no more than 'all nations,' 'all the families of the earth,' 'all flesh,' 'all men,' 'all the ends of the world' — these surely are expressions equivalent to and as comprehensive as 'the whole world.' But all these expressions we find frequently to mean believers only, yet of all sorts and throughout the world. 'All the ends of the earth have seen the salvation of our God' (Psalm 98:3). 'All the ends of the world shall remember and turn to the Lord, and all the kindreds of the nations shall worship before you' (Psalm 22:27). 'All nations shall serve you' (Psalm 72:11). These general expressions denote only the believers of all the several nations of the world. So Joel 2:18: 'I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh' — repeated in Acts 2:17 and Luke 3:6: 'All flesh shall see the salvation of God.' Believers are called all nations (Isaiah 2:2; 66:18), yes all men (Titus 2:11), for to them alone the salvation-bringing grace of God is manifest. If they, the children of God, are in scripture phrase 'all flesh,' 'all nations,' 'all kindreds,' 'all the ends of the world,' 'all men,' why not also 'the whole world'? Third, 'the whole world' does sometimes signify the worse part of the world (Revelation 12:9: 'the devil who deceives the whole world' — meaning the wicked in the world; 1 John 5:19: 'the whole world lies in evil' — where the whole world is opposed to those who are of God). Why may it not by like usage also signify the better part? This being clarified, it is evident that there is nothing in the words themselves that should compel anyone to conceive that all and every man in the world are denoted by them, but rather believers — even all who did or should believe throughout the whole world — in opposition only to believers of the Jewish nation.
This place treats not of the ransom of Christ in respect of impetration but of application: for it affirms Christ to be by his death what he is only by faith, as was shown from Romans 3:25. And also from application alone does consolation arise. Now never any said that the application of the death of Christ was universal: therefore this place cannot have regard to all and every one.
Secondly, Christ is here said to be a propitiation only for such as are intended in the place, which is apparent. But now Believers only are here intended; for it is to give them consolation in their failings, in which case consolation belongs to them alone. Therefore it is believers only, though of all sorts, times, places and conditions, for whom Christ is said to be a propitiation.
Thirdly, this kind of phrase and expression in other places cannot possibly be stretched to comprehend all and every one, as was apparent from the places before alleged. To which add Matthew 3:5: 'Then went out unto him all Judea, and all the region about Jordan'; among whom notwithstanding the Pharisees rejected his Baptism. Why then should it be so understood here, especially when all circumstances are contrary to such an interpretation?
Fourthly, the most clear parallel places in the Scripture are opposite to such a sense as is imposed. See Colossians 1:6 and John 11:52.
Fifth, if the words are to be understood to signify all and every one in the world, then is the whole assertion useless as to the chief end intended, namely to administer consolation to believers. For what consolation can arise from hence unto any believer, that Christ was a propitiation for them that perish? To say that he was a sufficient propitiation for them, though not effectual, will yield no more comfort than it would have done Jacob and his sons to have heard from Joseph that he had grain enough to sustain them — but that he would do so was altogether uncertain. The whole world then in this place is the whole people of God, opposed to the Jewish Nation, scattered abroad throughout the whole world, of what Nation, Kindred, Tongue, or Family soever, who are some of all sorts, not all of every sort — so that this place makes nothing for general Redemption.
Some few objections there are which are usually laid against our interpretation of this passage of the Apostle; but they are all prevented or removed in the explication itself, so that it shall suffice us to name one or two of them.
Objection 1: It is the intention of the Apostle to comfort all in their fears and doubts; but every one in the world may be in fears and doubts; therefore he proposes this, that they all may be comforted.
Answer: The 'all' that may be in fears and doubts, in the business of consolation, must of necessity be restrained to believers, as was before declared.
Objection 2: All Believers are comprehended in the first branch, 'for our sins'; and therefore in the increase and extension of the assertion, by adding 'for the sins of the whole world,' all others are intended.
Answer: In the first part, the believing Jews alone are intended, of whom John was one; and the addition is not an extending of the propitiation of Christ to others than Believers, but only to other Believers. If it might be granted that in the first branch all believers then living were comprehended, yet the increase or accession must be, by analogy, only those who were to be in after ages and remoter places than the name of Christ had then reached — even all those who, according to the prayer of our Savior in John 17, should believe on his name to the end of the world. And thus the two main places produced for the confirmation of the first Argument are vindicated from the false glosses and violent wrestings of our adversaries; the rest will be easily cleared.
The next place urged in the argument is John 6:51, where our Savior affirms that he will give his flesh for the life of the world. This giving of himself was the sanctifying and offering up himself, an acceptable oblation, for the sins of those for whom he suffered — his intention being that they for whom, dying, he so offered himself might have eternal life thereby. Because this was not for the Jews only but also for all the Elect of God everywhere, he calls them the world. That the world here cannot signify all and every one that ever were or should be is as manifest as if it were written with the beams of the sun, for it is made the object of Christ's intentions to purchase for them and bestow upon them life and salvation. Who can imagine that Christ in his oblation intended to purchase life and salvation for all whom he knew to be damned many ages before, the irreversible decree of wrath being gone forth against them? So that if we had no other place to show that the word 'world' does not always signify all but only some of all sorts — as the elect of God are — this one place produced by our adversaries would be sufficient.
Diverse other places I find produced by T.M. in chapter 14 of the universality of free grace, to the pretended end in hand; which with that whole chapter shall be briefly considered.
The first insisted on by him is 2 Corinthians 5:19: 'God was in Christ reconciling the world unto himself, not imputing their trespasses unto them.'
Answer: Those who are called 'the world' in verse 19 are termed 'us' in verse 18: 'He hath reconciled us to himself by Christ.' They are further described in verse 21 by Christ being made sin for them and their being made the righteousness of God in him — which things cannot be true of all in the world. God's reconciling the world to himself consists in, or necessarily infers, a non-imputation of sin to them, further interpreted as an imputation of the righteousness of Christ. This is the blessedness of justification in Christ (Romans 4:7), so this whole world which God in Christ reconciles to himself is a blessed, justified world — not all and every one of the sons of men, the greatest part of whom lie in evil. Moreover, this 'God in Christ reconciling' holds out an actual work of reconciliation: if absolute, why are not all actually and absolutely reconciled, pardoned, and justified? If conditional, what is that condition? If faith, then the sense is that God reconciled an unbelieving world on condition that it believe — which is circular. The world here then is only the world of blessed pardoned believers, who are made the righteousness of God in Christ.
What T.M. brings to enforce the opposite signification of the word is, in many words, very little. He spends much time to prove a twofold reconciliation in the text — the first of God to us by Christ, the other of us to God by the Spirit — which we also grant, though we do not divide them but make them several parts of the same reconciliation. The former is the rule of the latter: whoever God is reconciled to in and by Christ shall certainly be reconciled to God by the Spirit. And as the rule, so it is the chief motive toward the latter, being the subject of the gospel message whereby it is effected. So the assertion of this twofold reconciliation establishes our persuasion that the world can be taken only for the elect therein.
He brings further light from the context to strengthen his interpretation: those of the world here are called men (verse 11), men who must appear before the judgment seat of Christ (verse 10), who were dead (verse 14), and who ought to live unto Christ (verse 15) — therefore all men. But one thing more must be done for the cause to be his: he must prove that the elect of God are not men, that they must not appear before the judgment seat, that they were not dead, and that they ought not to live unto Christ. He adds further that of these some are reconciled to God (verse 18).
Answer: It is most false that there is any limitation or restriction of reconciliation to some of those concerning whom he treats — it is rather evidently extended to all of them. And there is not a word in the text about some being unreconciled, nor can the least color be wrested from it for any such assertion.
A second place he urges is John 1:9: 'He is the true light that lightens every man that comes into the world.' This world (says he) is the world of mankind made by Christ, which was his own by creation, mercy, and purchase, yet received him not (verses 3-4) — therefore it is manifest that Christ died for all.
Answer: By 'the world' here is meant not men in the world, all or some, but the habitable part of the earth — the phrase 'coming into the world' cannot possibly be otherwise understood; it is as much as 'born, and coming to breathe the common air.' Among the expositions of this place, that which seems most consonant to the discourse of the Apostle refers the word 'coming' to 'light' and not to 'man,' so that the words should be rendered: 'that was the true light which, coming into the world, lights every man' — as in John 3:19 and John 12:46. So nothing can be extorted from the word 'world' here for the universality of grace or ransom. The whole weight must lie on the words 'every man': which yet T.M. does not insist upon. Christ, coming into the world, is said to enlighten every man, partly because every one that has any light has it from him, and partly because he is the only true light, so that he enlightens every one that is enlightened — which is all the text avers; but whether all and every one before and after his incarnation were actually enlightened with the knowledge of Christ, let Scripture, experience, and reason determine.
A third place is John 1:29: 'Behold the Lamb of God which takes away the sin of the world.' And this (says he) is spoken of the world in general.
Answer: If it should be spoken of the world in general, yet nothing could thence be inferred as to a universality of individuals. That Christ takes away, bears, purges, and pardons the sin of the world is most certain, but that he takes it away from, bears it for, and purges it out of all and every man in the world is not in the least manner intimated in the text, and is in itself exceedingly false.
John 3:17 is next urged: 'God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world, but that the world through him might be saved.'
Answer: There is a notable inversion of the word 'world' in this place. By the world in the first place, that part of the world where our Savior conversed has the name of the whole assigned to it; in the second, you may take it for all and every one if you please, for the prime end of our Savior's coming was not to condemn any but to save his own. In the third place, they only are designed whom God sent his Son on purpose to save. That these are not all men but only believers of Jews and Gentiles throughout the world is evident: first, because all are not saved, and the Lord has said his purpose shall stand; second, because most men were at that instant actually damned — did he send his Son that they might be saved?; third, because Christ was appointed for the fall of some (Luke 1). The saved world is the people of God scattered abroad throughout the world.
John 4:42 and 1 John 4:14, with John 6:51 (which was before considered), are also produced by T.M., in all of which places Christ is called the Savior of the world.
Answer: Christ is said to be Savior of the world either because there is no other Savior for any in the world and he saves all that are saved — the people of God, not the Jews only, all over the world — or because he does actually save all the world and every one in it. If in the latter way, Mr. More has won; if in the former, we are still where we were. The following places of John 3:16, 18, and 1 John 2:1-2 have been already considered; some other texts are produced but so exceedingly wrested and strangely perverted that I dare not try the reader's patience by giving a repetition of them.
And this is our defense and answer to the first principal argument of our opposers, our explication of all those texts of Scripture which they have wrested to support it: the bottom of their strength being but the ambiguity of one word. Let the Christian reader try all things, and hold fast that which is good.
Next to the passage just considered, the one urged with the most confidence and pressed with the most persistence in defense of the general ransom is 1 John 2:1-2: 'My little children, I am writing these things to you so that you may not sin. And if anyone sins, we have an Advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous; and He Himself is the propitiation for our sins; and not for ours only, but also for those of the whole world.' The weight of the whole argument rests on this: that the apostle affirms Christ to be a propitiation for the sins of the whole world — which they say plainly means all and every person in the world, and they argue this:
First, from the words themselves without any distortion: for what can 'the whole world' mean but all people in the world?
Second, from the contrast made between 'world' and 'believers' — all believers being included in the first part of the apostle's statement that Christ is a propitiation for our sins, and therefore by 'the world' set in contrast to them, all others are meant.
Before coming to the fuller clarification of the mind of the Holy Spirit in these words, I should note that I could answer the objection from this passage very briefly, yet so solidly as to cut off all the quibbling responses of our opponents — namely, that just as 'the world' in other places refers to people living in the world, so 'the whole world' in this passage can mean nothing other than people living throughout the whole world, in all its parts and regions, as opposed to the inhabitants of any one nation, place, or country, as the redeemed of Christ are described (Revelation 5:9). But because they so greatly rely on this passage, I will with God's help open its meaning so clearly that it will be evident to all how little reason they have to place any confidence in their forced interpretation of it.
To understand this passage properly, three things must be considered: first, to whom the apostle is writing; second, what his purpose and aim is in this particular place; third, the meaning of the two expressions — Christ being a propitiation, and the whole world. Having done this, in line with the rule of faith, the context of this and parallel passages, and the use of the words themselves, we will clearly demonstrate by straightforward reasons that the text cannot be understood in the way it is pressed for universal redemption.
First, identifying those to whom the epistle was specifically directed will shed some light on the apostle's meaning. Although this and all other parts of divine Scripture were given for the use, benefit, and direction of the whole church, it is evident that many parts were directed to particular churches and persons. Now though we have nothing expressly naming those to whom this epistle was primarily directed, yet by clear and reasonable deduction it can be shown with strong probability that it was intended for the Jews or believers of the circumcision. First, John was in a particular way a minister and apostle to the Jews, and therefore they were the most immediate and fitting objects of his care — James, Cephas, and John gave Paul and Barnabas the right hand of fellowship, with the understanding that Paul and Barnabas would go to the Gentiles while they went to the circumcision (Galatians 2:9). Now just as Peter and James, in carrying out their apostleship to them, wrote epistles to them in their dispersion (James 1:1; 1 Peter 1:1), as Paul did to all the chief churches among the Gentiles he had planted — so it is more than probable that John, in writing this epistle, directed it primarily and in the first place to those who were primarily and most directly the objects of his care and apostolic ministry.
Second, he frequently indicates that those to whom he wrote were among those who had heard and received the word from the beginning, as noted twice in this chapter (verse 7): 'That commandment which you heard from the beginning.' Now that the proclamation of the gospel had its beginning among the Jews, and first reached them before the conversion of any of the Gentiles — which was a mystery for a season — is clear from the account in Acts (chapters 1-6, 12). 'To the Jew first and also to the Greek' was the divinely appointed order (Romans 1:16-17).
Third, the contrast the apostle makes between 'us' and 'the world' in this very passage is sufficient to show to whom he was writing. As a Jew, he counts himself among the believing Jews to whom he wrote, setting himself together with them in contrast to the rest of believers throughout the world. This is a pattern of speech common to this apostle — and how it is to be understood is explained in his Gospel at John 11:51-52.
Fourth, his frequent references and warnings about false teachers, deceivers, and antichrists — who in those early days were, if not all of them, at least for the most part, from among the circumcision — clearly indicates that those people were the primary intended audience of this epistle. He is a propitiation for our sins — that is, the sins of us who are believing Jews — and not for ours only, but for the sins of the whole world: that is, the children of God scattered throughout the world, of whatever nation, people, language, or tongue they may be. So what we have here is not a contrast between the effective salvation of all believers and a redemption limited only to Jewish believers — but rather between Jewish believers and all other believers and children of God throughout the whole world.
The apostle's aim being to bring consolation to believers in their failures, he can only speak of them; and if he were to extend what he says — that Christ is a propitiation — to all and every person, I cannot see how this would possibly serve the stated purpose, or bring any consolation to believers. For what comfort can come to them from being told that Christ died for countless people who will be condemned? The children's bread must not be thrown to dogs.
The meaning and significance of the word 'propitiation' — which Christ is said to be for us and for the whole world — must next be considered. The word propitiation refers to what was done or foreshadowed by the mercy seat: to appease, pacify, and reconcile God in terms of turning away His anger for sin. Christ is said to be the mercy seat because it was placed upon the Ark and covered it, with God thereby declaring Himself to be pacified or reconciled, the cause of anger and enmity being covered. Whether God can reasonably be said to be a propitiation for the whole world, if that means all and every person — are the sins of every one expiated? Is God reconciled to every one? Is every sinner pardoned? — let all who are able judge. Doubtless all these things are true of every believer, and of no one else in the world.
Fourth, let us consider the phrase 'the whole world.' I will not here fully explain how the word 'world' carries various meanings in Scripture, partly because I have already done so to some extent, and partly because it is not so much the word itself that is pressed here but only its combination with the general modifier 'whole' — the whole world. Concerning this expression I say:
First, although this expression, along with its equivalent 'all the world,' appears seven or eight times in the New Testament, it cannot be shown clearly and unmistakably that it ever means all and every person in the world. Unless some circumstance in this particular passage requires that meaning — which it does not — it is a plain distortion of the words to force that interpretation on them. Let us briefly review the relevant passages. Revelation 3:10: 'I will keep you from the hour of testing which is about to come upon the whole world' — where it cannot mean all and every person, because some are promised to be preserved from what is said to come upon it. Colossians 1:6: 'which has come to you, just as in all the world' — where first, all and every person cannot be meant, for they had not all received the gospel at that time; and second, only believers living throughout the world are meant, because the gospel is said to bear fruit in those to whom it comes, and there is no genuine gospel fruit without faith and repentance. Romans 1:8: 'your faith is being proclaimed throughout the whole world' — did every person in the world hear and speak of the Roman believers' faith? Luke 2:1: 'Now in those days a decree went out from Caesar Augustus, that a census be taken of all the inhabited earth' — which yet applied only to the Roman Empire, far short of including every single person in the world. If then the expression itself does not inherently convey such universality as is claimed, unless the subject matter and context of the passage require it — and neither does so here — there is no basis for pressing such an interpretation on it. Rather we may conclude that 'all the world' and 'the whole world,' being taken in other places to mean broadly people of all kinds throughout the world, are to be understood the same way here.
Second, 'the whole world' can mean no more than 'all nations,' 'all the families of the earth,' 'all flesh,' 'all people,' 'all the ends of the world' — these expressions are surely equivalent to and as broad as 'the whole world.' But all these expressions we find frequently meaning only believers, yet believers of all kinds throughout the world. 'All the ends of the earth have seen the salvation of our God' (Psalm 98:3). 'All the ends of the earth will remember and turn to the Lord, and all the families of the nations will worship before You' (Psalm 22:27). 'All nations will serve Him' (Psalm 72:11). These general expressions refer only to believers from all the various nations of the world. So also Joel 2:28: 'I will pour out My Spirit on all mankind' — repeated in Acts 2:17 and Luke 3:6: 'All flesh will see the salvation of God.' Believers are called all nations (Isaiah 2:2; 66:18), even all people (Titus 2:11), for to them alone the grace of God that brings salvation is revealed. If believers, the children of God, are in scriptural language called 'all flesh,' 'all nations,' 'all families,' 'all the ends of the world,' 'all people' — why not also 'the whole world'? Third, 'the whole world' sometimes refers to the worse part of the world (Revelation 12:9: 'the devil who deceives the whole world' — meaning the wicked in the world; 1 John 5:19: 'the whole world lies in the power of the evil one' — where the whole world is set in contrast to those who are of God). Why may it not by similar usage also refer to the better part? With this established, it is clear that nothing in the words themselves requires anyone to understand all and every person in the world to be meant — but rather believers, even all who did or would believe throughout the whole world, in contrast only to believers of the Jewish nation.
This passage treats not of Christ's ransom in terms of its obtaining but of its application: for it affirms Christ to be by His death what He is only by faith, as was shown from Romans 3:25. And also from application alone does consolation arise. Now no one has ever said that the application of Christ's death is universal: therefore this passage cannot have reference to all and every person.
Second, Christ is here said to be a propitiation only for those intended in the passage, which is evident. But only believers are intended here; for the purpose is to give them consolation in their failures, in which case consolation belongs to them alone. Therefore it is believers only — though of all kinds, times, places, and conditions — for whom Christ is said to be a propitiation.
Third, this kind of phrase and expression in other passages cannot possibly be extended to include all and every person, as was evident from the passages cited earlier. Add to these Matthew 3:5: 'Then Jerusalem was going out to him, and all Judea and all the district around the Jordan' — among whom nonetheless the Pharisees rejected his baptism. Why then should it be understood that way here, especially when all the circumstances point against such a reading?
Fourth, the clearest parallel passages in Scripture are contrary to the meaning being imposed on this text. See Colossians 1:6 and John 11:52.
Fifth, if the words are to be understood as referring to every individual in the world, then the whole assertion becomes useless for its chief intended purpose, which is to give comfort to believers. For what comfort can any believer draw from the fact that Christ was a propitiation for those who perish? To say He was a sufficient propitiation for them, though not an effective one, would give no more comfort than it would have given Jacob and his sons to hear from Joseph that he had grain enough to sustain them — with no assurance that he would actually do so. The whole world in this passage therefore is the whole people of God, set over against the Jewish nation, scattered throughout the whole world, of whatever nation, family, tongue, or lineage — some of all kinds, not all of every kind. So this passage provides nothing in support of general redemption.
There are a few objections commonly raised against our reading of this passage by the apostle; but they are all either anticipated or resolved in the explanation itself, so naming one or two will be sufficient.
Objection 1: The apostle's purpose is to comfort all who have fears and doubts; but everyone in the world may have fears and doubts; therefore he presents this truth so that all may be comforted.
Answer: The 'all' who may have fears and doubts, in the matter of consolation, must necessarily be limited to believers, as was stated before.
Objection 2: All believers are included in the first part — 'for our sins'; and therefore in the expansion of the assertion, by adding 'for the sins of the whole world,' all others are intended.
Answer: In the first part, only the believing Jews are intended, of whom John was one; and the addition does not extend the propitiation of Christ to those other than believers, but only to other believers. Even granting that the first part included all believers then living, the expansion by analogy can only refer to those who would believe in later ages and more distant places than the name of Christ had yet reached — all those who, according to our Savior's prayer in John 17, would believe in His name to the end of the world. And so the two main passages cited in support of the first argument have been defended from the false interpretations and forced readings of our opponents; the rest will be cleared up easily.
The next passage pressed in the argument is John 6:51, where our Savior declares that He will give His flesh for the life of the world. This giving of Himself was the consecrating and offering up of Himself as an acceptable sacrifice for the sins of those for whom He suffered — His intention being that those for whom He so offered Himself in dying might thereby have eternal life. Because this was not for the Jews only but for all the elect of God everywhere, He calls them 'the world.' That 'the world' here cannot mean every individual who ever lived or would live is as plain as anything could be, for it is made the object of Christ's intention to purchase and bestow life and salvation for them. Who can imagine that Christ in His offering intended to purchase life and salvation for all whom He knew to have been condemned many ages before, the irreversible decree of wrath already having gone out against them? So that even if we had no other passage to show that 'world' does not always mean all people but only some of all kinds — as God's elect are — this one passage produced by our opponents would be sufficient.
Several other passages are produced by T.M. in chapter 14 of The Universality of Free Grace for the same claimed purpose; that entire chapter will be briefly considered.
The first he presses is 2 Corinthians 5:19: 'God was in Christ reconciling the world to Himself, not counting their trespasses against them.'
Answer: Those called 'the world' in verse 19 are called 'us' in verse 18: 'He reconciled us to Himself through Christ.' They are further described in verse 21 as those for whom Christ was made sin and who are made the righteousness of God in Him — things that cannot be true of every person in the world. God's reconciling the world to Himself consists in, or necessarily entails, a non-imputation of sin to them, further defined as an imputation of Christ's righteousness. This is the blessedness of justification in Christ (Romans 4:7), so the whole world that God in Christ reconciles to Himself is a blessed, justified world — not all and every one of the sons of men, the greater part of whom lie in wickedness. Moreover, 'God in Christ reconciling' expresses an actual act of reconciliation: if absolute, why are not all actually and completely reconciled, pardoned, and justified? If conditional, what is that condition? If faith, then the meaning would be that God reconciled an unbelieving world on condition that it believe — which is circular. The world here, then, is only the world of blessed, pardoned believers, who are made the righteousness of God in Christ.
What T.M. offers to enforce the opposite reading of the word amounts, in many words, to very little. He spends much time proving a twofold reconciliation in the text — first of God to us through Christ, second of us to God through the Spirit — which we also grant, though we do not separate them but regard them as successive parts of the same reconciliation. The former is the pattern of the latter: whoever God is reconciled to in and through Christ will certainly be reconciled to God through the Spirit. And as the pattern, so it is the chief motive toward the latter, being the content of the Gospel message by which it is brought about. So the affirmation of this twofold reconciliation actually confirms our view that 'the world' can refer only to the elect in this passage.
He draws further support from the context to strengthen his reading: those called 'the world' here are called 'men' (verse 11), men who must appear before the judgment seat of Christ (verse 10), who were dead (verse 14), and who ought to live to Christ (verse 15) — therefore all people. But one more thing must be done for the case to be his: he must prove that God's elect are not people, that they need not appear before the judgment seat, that they were not dead, and that they ought not to live to Christ. He adds further that of these some are reconciled to God (verse 18).
Answer: It is completely false that there is any limitation or restriction of reconciliation to some of those under discussion — it is in fact clearly extended to all of them. There is not a word in the text about some remaining unreconciled, nor can the slightest color for such an assertion be wrested from it.
A second passage he presses is John 1:9: 'There was the true Light which, coming into the world, enlightens every man.' This world (he says) is the world of humanity made by Christ, which was His own through creation, mercy, and purchase, yet received Him not (verses 3-4) — therefore it is clear that Christ died for all.
Answer: By 'the world' here is meant not people in the world, whether all or some, but the habitable earth — the phrase 'coming into the world' cannot possibly be understood otherwise; it simply means 'being born, and coming to breathe the common air.' Among the interpretations of this passage, the one most consistent with the apostle's argument refers the word 'coming' to 'light' and not to 'man,' so that the words should be rendered: 'that was the true light which, coming into the world, enlightens every man' — as in John 3:19 and John 12:46. So nothing can be extracted from the word 'world' here in support of universal grace or ransom. The whole weight must rest on the words 'every man' — which T.M. does not press. Christ, coming into the world, is said to enlighten every person, partly because every one who has any light has it from Him, and partly because He is the only true light, so that He enlightens everyone who is enlightened — which is all the text affirms; but whether every single person before and after His incarnation was actually enlightened with knowledge of Christ, let Scripture, experience, and reason determine.
A third passage is John 1:29: 'Behold, the Lamb of God who takes away the sin of the world.' And this (he says) is spoken of the world in general.
Answer: Even if it were spoken of the world in general, nothing could from that be inferred regarding a universality of individuals. That Christ takes away, bears, purges, and pardons the sin of the world is most certain; but that He takes it away from, bears it for, and purges it out of every individual in the world is not in the slightest suggested by the text and is in itself plainly false.
John 3:17 is next pressed: 'God did not send the Son into the world to judge the world, but that the world might be saved through Him.'
Answer: There is a notable variation in the use of 'world' in this passage. By 'the world' in the first instance, that part of the world where our Savior lived has the name of the whole assigned to it; in the second, you may take it for all and every person if you like, since the primary aim of our Savior's coming was not to condemn anyone but to save His own. In the third instance, those only are intended whom God sent His Son with the express purpose of saving. That these are not all people but only believers from among Jews and Gentiles throughout the world is clear: first, because not all are saved, and the Lord has said His purpose will stand; second, because most people at that very moment were already condemned — did He send His Son that they might be saved?; third, because Christ was appointed for the fall of some (Luke 1). The saved world is the people of God scattered abroad throughout the world.
John 4:42 and 1 John 4:14, along with John 6:51 (which was considered before), are also cited by T.M., in all of which passages Christ is called the Savior of the world.
Answer: Christ is said to be the Savior of the world either because there is no other Savior for anyone in the world and He saves all who are saved — the people of God, not the Jews only, spread throughout the world — or because He actually saves every individual in the world. If the latter, Mr. More has won; if the former, we are still where we were. The passages John 3:16, 18 and 1 John 2:1-2 have already been addressed; other texts are cited but so forcibly wrested and strangely distorted that I will not try the reader's patience by repeating them.
And this is our defense and answer to the first major argument of our opponents, and our explanation of all the Scripture passages they have forced to support it — the whole of their strength resting on the ambiguity of one word. Let the Christian reader test everything and hold fast to what is good.