Chapter 19: Of the Law of God

Question 1.

Did God give to Adam a law as a Covenant of Works, by which he bound him and all his posterity, to personal, entire, exact, and perpetual obedience?

Yes.

Did he promise life upon the fulfilling; and did he threaten death, upon the breach of it?

Yes.

Was Adam endued with power and ability to keep it?

Yes. (Genesis 1:26-27; Genesis 2:17; Romans 2:14-15; Romans 5:12, 19; Galatians 3:10, 12; Ecclesiastes 7:29; Job 28:28)

Well then, do not the Socinians err, who maintain, that God made no covenant with Adam in his integrity, in which he promised to him, and his posterity life eternal?

Yes.

By what reasons are they confuted?

(1) From those places of Scripture, where the righteousness of the law is described (Leviticus 18:5; Romans 10:5; Galatians 3:12; Ezekiel 20:11, 13): whoever, therefore, keeps my statutes and judgments, says the Lord, shall live in them. And to whom life is promised forever, upon their perfect obedience, and continuance in all things written in the book of the law. And from those places in which death is threatened to them that in the least transgress the law of God (Deuteronomy 27:26; Galatians 3:10; Ezekiel 18:4). (2) From the words of our Savior, who spoke to the young man according to the Covenant of Works, in which the Lord promises life eternal to such as shall fulfill the law (Matthew 19:17; Luke 10:28). Observe, that Christ answers here according to the question and opinion of this young man, who thought he was able to obtain salvation by his own good works; and therefore Christ directs him to the law, thereby to bring him to the acknowledgement of his own imperfection, and afterwards to faith in himself. (3) Because man was created by God in righteousness, holiness, and immortality, according to the similitude and image of God (Genesis 1:26; Genesis 9:6; Ecclesiastes 7:29; Ephesians 4:24; Colossians 3:9-10). And received from him the law of nature, naturally engraved upon his heart (Romans 2:14-15). And besides this law, a positive law was superadded to it, that Adam should not eat of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil; that by obeying the same, he might give a specimen, or proof of his obedience to the law of nature, in the perfect obedience whereof, so long as he should continue, he should live forever. For the Lord threatened death to him only if he should sin; and death is the wages of sin, which by sin entered into the world (Genesis 2:17; Romans 6:23; Romans 5:12-13). (4) From those places of Scripture in which it is denied that believers, under the Covenant of Grace, are justified by the law, but by faith and the righteousness of Christ manifested in the gospel. For the law is weak, powerless, or impotent, through the corruption of our nature, to justify us and give us life (Romans 3:20-21, 28; Galatians 2:16; Galatians 3:10-13; Philippians 3:9; Romans 8:2-3).

Question 2.

Do the first four commandments contain our duty towards God, and the other six, our duty towards man?

Yes. (Matthew 22:37-40)

Well then, do not the Papists and Lutherans err, who maintain that three only belong to the first table, and seven to the second; and that, 'you shall not make for yourself any graven image' with the foregoing, 'you shall not have any other gods before me,' are but one command? And that, 'you shall not covet your neighbor's house,' 'you shall not covet your neighbor's wife, nor his manservant,' etc. are two distinct commands? Yes.

By what reasons are they confuted?

(1) Because the two first precepts command diverse things. The one teaches us who is to be worshipped, namely the true and living God, and no other. The second instructs us how he is to be worshipped, namely according to his own appointment, and not according to the appointment and pleasure of men, as by images and such like. (2) Because it is one and the same concupiscence which is forbidden in the tenth command, the sum of which, 'you shall not covet,' is cited by the Apostle Paul (Romans 7:7), and which is summarily expressed in the close of the tenth command, 'nor anything which is your neighbor's.' (3) If the tenth command ought to be two, because these words, 'you shall not covet,' are twice repeated, then it would follow there should be as many commands as there are things desired and forbidden; because it is evident that these words 'you shall not covet' are to be repeated with every part.

Question 3.

Are all the ceremonial laws now abrogated under the new Testament?

Yes. (Colossians 2:14, 16-17; Daniel 9:27; Ephesians 2:15-16)

Well then, do not the Judaizers err, who maintain that all the ceremonial laws remain in their former strength and vigor, and are obliging to believers under the gospel, and not abrogated or annulled by Christ?

Yes.

By what reasons are they confuted?

(1) Because Christ has abolished the Law of Commandments, contained in ordinances, that he might gather together both Jews and Gentiles into one new man (Ephesians 2:14-15; Colossians 2:14). Note that the Apostle here speaks of all believers, both Jews and Gentiles, as of one man, because they being all under Christ the Head, as members of one spiritual body, are made up as one renewed man. (2) Because the Apostle says, "Let no man judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of a holy day, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days — all which are shadows of things to come, but the body is of Christ" (Colossians 2:16-17). This verse is a conclusion of the Apostle's foregoing discourse against ceremonies and things commanded by the Ceremonial Law, which by the coming of Christ are abolished. He calls them in verse 17 a shadow of things to come, but the body, says he, is of Christ — that is, the thing signified is of Christ, for all the shadows of the Old Testament had respect to Christ and his benefits, by whose coming they also have an end (John 1:17; Galatians 4:3-5). (3) Because the Apostle says believers are dead with Christ from the rudiments of the world — that is, from the Ceremonial Commands, as is evident from the context. "Why," says he, "as though living in the world, are you subject to ordinances?" — that is, as if your life and happiness consisted in these outward worldly principles, but you suffer yourselves to be burdened by such teachers with human institutions and ordinances. The Apostle indeed, in these last words, is reasoning against the institutions and ordinances of men, from this medium, which is an argument from the greater to the lesser: if you be dead with Christ from the ceremonies of the law instituted in the Old Testament by God himself, much more are you free from the institutions and ordinances of men, which are only grounded upon their own good pleasure (Colossians 2:20-21; Galatians 4:10-11). (4) Because the Apostle affirms that the observation and using of circumcision cannot consist with true faith in Christ, now after the gospel is fully published. And he exhorts the Galatians to abide in their liberty purchased by Christ, and not to submit themselves to the yoke of Mosaic ceremonies (Galatians 5:1-2). (5) Because those teachers who pressed the believing Gentiles to be circumcised and to observe the Law of Moses — I mean the Ceremonial Law — were condemned by the Council of Apostles (Acts 15:24). (6) Because Ceremonial Commands are neither of the law of nature, nor are they enjoined to believers under the gospel as things moral. (7) Because these appointed ceremonies were figures only of things to come, imposed on the Jews until the time of reformation, but taken away by Christ (Hebrews 9:9-12; Hebrews 10:9), where it is said, "He takes away the first" — namely all sorts of propitiatory offerings which were used in the Old Testament — "to settle the second" — namely his obedience to the will of his Father. (8) Because they were given to the Israelites to foresignify and represent Christ and his death, and to be marks of difference between them and the unbelieving nations (Colossians 2:17; Ephesians 2:14), where it is said, "who has made both these" — namely Jews and Gentiles — "one, and has broken down the middle wall of partition," whereby the Ceremonial Law is understood, which made a difference between the Jews and the Gentiles. Now, since Christ has suffered death and the Gentiles are called, all these ceremonies which did foresignify his death and made that difference must of necessity cease. (9) Because the temple of Jerusalem, to which the ceremonies were restricted, is destroyed, and could never since be rebuilt.

Quest. 4.

Did the Lord by Moses give to the Jews, as a body politic, sundry judicial laws, which expired together with their state?

Yes.

Do they oblige any other now, further than the general equity thereof may require?

No (Exodus 21:1 to the last verse; Exodus 22:1-29; Genesis 49:10; 1 Corinthians 9:8-10; 1 Peter 2:13-14; Matthew 5:17, 38-39).

Well then, do not some err — though otherwise orthodox — who maintain that the whole judicial law of the Jews is yet alive and binding all of us who are Christian Gentiles?

Yes.

By what reasons are they confuted?

(1) Because the judicial law was delivered by Moses to the Israelites to be observed, as to a body politic (Exodus 21). (2) Because this law, in many things which are of particular right, was accommodated to the commonwealth of the Jews and not to other nations also (Exodus 22:3; Exodus 21:2; Leviticus 25:2-3; Deuteronomy 24:1-3; Deuteronomy 25:5-7). (3) Because in other things which are not of particular right, it is neither from the law of nature, obliging by reason, nor is it pressed upon believers under the gospel to be observed. (4) Because believers are appointed under the gospel to obey the civil laws and commands of those under whose government they live, provided they be just, and that for conscience's sake (Romans 13:1; 1 Peter 2:13-14; Titus 3:1).

Quest. 5.

Does the Moral Law forever bind, as well justified persons as others, to the obedience thereof, and that not only in regard of the matter contained in it, but also in respect of the authority of God, who gave it?

Yes (Romans 13:8-10; Ephesians 6:2; 1 John 2:3-4, 7-8; James 2:10-11).

Well then, do not the Antinomians err, who maintain that believers under the gospel are not obliged to the obedience of the Moral Law?

Yes.

By what reasons are they confuted?

(1) Because, Christ says, he came not to destroy the Law, and the Prophets; that is, to alter, or annul the doctrine of the Law, or of the Prophets (Matthew 5:17). (2) Because, he says in the following verse; I say to you, till heaven and earth pass, one jot, or one title, shall in no wise pass from the Law till all be fulfilled (Matthew 5:18). (3) Because, whoever shall break one of these least Commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called least in the Kingdom of Heaven — that is, shall not at all be esteemed there, or shall not enter thereinto, verse 19. (4) Because, after the Apostle Paul has concluded the justification of believers to be of free grace, he subjoins, Do we then make void the Law, through faith? God forbid: indeed we establish the Law (Romans 3:31). (5) Because, all the Precepts of the Moral Law belong to the Law of Nature, naturally engraved upon the hearts of men, which cannot be abrogated, but oblige all men perpetually, and necessarily from natural reason itself (Romans 2:15). (6) Because, all the Precepts of the Moral Law are repeated in the Gospel and enjoined to all believers by Christ (Matthew 19:17-20; Romans 2:13). (7) Because, Paul adjoins and proposes to believers under the New Testament both a command and a promise of the Decalogue, as properly belonging to them (Ephesians 6:2-3). (8) Because, the Apostle James sets forth to believers the moral law as a rule of life, which they are obliged to observe, and by breaking of which they are convicted of sins (James 2:8-9, 11). (9) Because, whoever commits any sin against the Moral Law shall never enter into the kingdom of God (1 Corinthians 6:9-10; Galatians 5:21). (10) Because, this tenet of the Antinomians turns the grace of God into wantonness; overturns the end of Christian liberty, and of the coming and death of Christ, and paves a way leading to all impiety and the indulging of the lusts of the flesh, and fostering the dominion of sin, contrary to these Scriptures: Jude verse 4; 1 John 2:16; 2 Peter 2:18-20; Romans 6:14-16; Luke 1:74-75; Titus 2:11-12; 1 Timothy 6:9; Romans 6:21-23. (11) Because, believers ought to study good works (Titus 3:8), to which they are created in Christ, that they should walk in them (Ephesians 2:10). (12) Because, Christ will render to every man at his last coming, both to the good and the bad, according to their works (Revelation 22:12; Matthew 25:34-35, 41-42).

Quest. 6.

Are true believers under the Law, as a Covenant of Works, to be thereby justified, or condemned?

No (Romans 6:14; Galatians 2:16; Galatians 3:13; Galatians 4:4-5; Acts 13:39; Romans 8:1).

Well then, do not the Papists and Socinians err, who maintain that believers under the Gospel are justified by their obedience to the Law of God — the Law, I say, either Moral or Evangelical — and condemned for the transgression thereof? Yes.

By what reasons are they confuted?

(1) Because, by the law is the knowledge of sin (Romans 3:20). (2) Because, for as many as are of the works of the law, are under the curse (Galatians 3:10). (3) Because, there is not a law given, which could have given life to fallen man (Galatians 3:21). (4) Because, Christ is not dead in vain: for if righteousness be by the law, then Christ is dead in vain, that is, without cause, reason, need, or fruit (Galatians 2:21; see John 15:25). (5) Because, it was promised by God, about 430 years before the promulgation of the law, that all the nations of the earth should be blessed in the seed of Abraham (Genesis 22:18; Genesis 12:3; with Galatians 3:16-18). (6) Because, Christ is become of no effect, to them, that are justified by the law: they are fallen from grace (Galatians 5:4). (7) Because, believers ought to wait, through the Spirit, for the hope of righteousness by faith (Galatians 5:5). (8) Because, the Apostle (though a strict observer of the law) counted all his works but loss, and dung, that he might be found in Christ, not having his own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith (Philippians 3:8-9). (9) Because, Christ is made of God to believers righteousness (1 Corinthians 1:30; 2 Corinthians 5:21). (10) Because, they that seek righteousness, not by faith, but by their works, do not attain to it. And contrarywise, they that seek their righteousness, by faith, and not by their works, do attain to it (Romans 9:30-32). (11) Because, Christ is the end of the law for righteousness, to every one that believes (Romans 10:4). (12) Because, the justification of men under the law, or covenant of works is by the law and by the works of the law: but the justification of men under grace, or the covenant of grace, is by faith (Romans 10:5-6, 8-10; Galatians 3:11-12; Leviticus 18:5). But believers now are not under the law, or the covenant of works, but under grace, or the covenant of grace (Romans 6:14-15; Galatians 5:18). (13) Because, believers under the New and Old Testament, are saved by the grace of Jesus Christ, and not by the law, whose yoke none were able to bear. That is, none were able perfectly to keep, nor to be justified thereby (Acts 15:10-11). (14) Because, whoever transgresses the law, in the least, is under the curse of it (Galatians 3:10; Deuteronomy 27:26). And deserves death, and a curse (Romans 6:23; Ezekiel 18:4, 20). But all men, even the regenerate sin daily, and transgress the law of God, and so are guilty of all (James 1:13, compared with James 2:10, and with 1 John 1:8). (15) Because, good works, do not go before justification, but follow after it (Titus 1:15; Hebrews 11:6; Romans 14:23; Romans 3:9-10, 23). (16) Because, the righteousness of God, which is by faith in Jesus Christ, is manifested to all, and upon all by Moses and the Prophets. For all the Apostles do witness, that whoever believes in Jesus Christ, shall have remission of sins (Romans 3:21, 24-25; Acts 10:43). (17) Because, justification is from the free grace of God (Romans 3:24). Not by the works of the law, otherwise grace, should be no more grace; nor work any more work (Romans 11:6). (18) Because, the good works of believers are unclean, and defiled (Isaiah 64:6; Galatians 5:17). (19) Because, it is said, by the Spirit of God, the just shall live by faith (Habakkuk 2:4; Galatians 3:11). (20) Because, it is written, that Abraham believed God, and it was imputed to him for righteousness (Genesis 15:6; Romans 4:3). But to him that works not, but believes on him, that justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness (Romans 4:5). (21) Because, believers must not glory in themselves, but in God only (Romans 4:2; Romans 3:27). (22) Because, by the obedience of one, many shall be made righteous, as was foretold, by the Prophet (Isaiah 53:11). And is asserted by Paul (Romans 5:17). (23) Because, justification by faith, and not by works, is expressly taught, at large by the Apostle, in that third to the Romans, and third to the Galatians.