Chapter 11: Of Justification

Question 1.

Does God freely justify those, whom he effectually calls, not by infusing righteousness into them, but by pardoning their sins, and by accounting, and accepting their persons, as righteous, not for anything wrought in them, or done by them, but for Christ's sake alone?

Yes: (Romans 9:30; Romans 3:24)

Well then, do not the Papists, Socinians, and Quakers err, who maintain, that the righteousness, whereby we are justified before God, is not without us, but within us, and inherent?

Yes.

By what reasons are they confuted?

(1) Because, if inherent righteousness did justify us, then good works would justify us, but the Scripture denies that; (Romans 3:20): Therefore, (says the text) by the deeds of the law, shall no flesh be justified in his sight: And verse 28: therefore we conclude, that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law. See (Romans 4:6; Galatians 2:16; Ephesians 2:8-9; Titus 3:5): In all which places, works are secluded expressly from our justification. (2) Because, the righteousness, whereby we are justified, is not our proper own; (2 Corinthians 5:21): For he (to wit God) has made him to be sin for us who knew no sin, that we might be made the righteousness of God in him; (Philippians 3:8-9): and be found in him, not having my own righteousness, which is of the law, but that which is through the faith of Christ, the righteousness which is of God by faith. (3) Because, we are not justified by the law; (Acts 13:38-39). (4) Because, our justification, is given to us freely; (Romans 4:4-5; Romans 11:6). (5) Because, our inherent righteousness, is imperfect, (1 Kings 8:46): For this Scripture says, there is no man that sins not. See that parallel place; (1 John 1:8): Where it is said, if we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. (6) Because, if we were justified by inherent righteousness, we would have matter to boast of, which is contrary to Paul's doctrine, (Ephesians 2:9): Not of works, lest any man should boast. (7) Because, the righteousness of a Christian man, is the justifying of the ungodly. (Romans 4:5).

Question 2.

Does God justify men, by imputing faith itself, the act of believing, or any other evangelical obedience, to them, as their righteousness?

No. (Romans 4:5-8; 2 Corinthians 5:19-21; Romans 3:22, 24, 25, 27, 28; Titus 3:5-7; Ephesians 1:7; Jeremiah 23:6; 1 Corinthians 1:30-31; Romans 5:17-19).

Well then, do not the Arminians err, who maintain, that faith itself, and the act of believing, is imputed to us for righteousness?

Yes.

By what reasons are they confuted?

(1) Because, faith is that by which, we receive righteousness; (Acts 26:18). Therefore if it be that by which, we receive righteousness, it cannot be righteousness itself: because, that which is received, is far different, and another thing from that, whereby we receive it. (2) Because, we are not justified by inherent righteousness, as is proven evidently against the Papists in the last foregoing question, all which reasons do clearly evince, that we are not justified by the imputation of faith itself, or by the act of believing, as our righteousness.

Question 3.

Is faith, which is the alone instrument of justification, alone in the person justified?

No.

Is it ever accompanied with all other saving graces, and is no dead faith, but works by love?

Yes. (James 2:17, 22, 26; Galatians 5:6).

Well then, do not the Papists err, who maintain, that justifying faith, may be truly, and really separated from love, saving hope, and all the rest of the Christian virtues?

Yes.

By what reasons are they confuted?

(1) Because, as the body without the spirit is dead, so faith without works is dead also; (James 2:26). (2) Because, faith works by love; (Galatians 5:6). That is, by showing forth the works of love in us, towards God, and our neighbor. (3) Because, faith purifies the heart; (Acts 15:9). (4) Because, he that has faith, is in Christ: but he that is in Christ brings forth much fruit; (John 15:5). (5) Because, those who have faith, are buried with Christ, and walk in newness of life; (Romans 6:4). That is, in holiness and purity, which accompany faith. (6) Because, he that says, I know God, and keeps not his commandments, is a liar, and the truth is not in him; (1 John 2:4).

Question 4.

Did Christ by his obedience, and death fully discharge the debt of all these, who are thus justified, and did he make a proper, real, and full satisfaction to the Father's justice, in their behalf?

Yes. (Romans 5:8-10; 1 Timothy 2:5-6; Daniel 9:24, 26; Hebrews 10:10, 14; Isaiah 53:4-6, 10-12).

Well then, do not the Papists err, who maintain, that Christ has not made a full satisfaction, to divine justice, for the sins of those who are justified: and that human satisfactions do in part, satisfy the justice of God for sin?

Yes.

Do not likewise the Socinians err, who deny, all true and proper satisfaction to Christ's sufferings?

Yes.

By what reasons are they confuted?

(1) Because, the prophet says, he has born our griefs, and carried our sorrows, was wounded for our transgressions, was bruised for our iniquities; (Isaiah 53:4-5). (2) Because, by one offering, he has perfected for ever, them that are sanctified; (Hebrews 10:14). (3) Because, human satisfactions, being finite, can never satisfy in part or in whole, the infinite justice of God, for the punishment of sin; (Job 35:6). (4) Because, he has blotted out the handwriting of ordinances, which was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross; (Colossians 2:14). (5) Because, there is nothing more frequent in Scripture, than that Christ was a propitiation for our sins; (Romans 3:25). (6) Because, Christ says, I lay down my life for my sheep, and no man takes it from me, but I lay it down of myself; (John 10:15, 18). (7) Because, the Son of man came to give his life, a ransom for many; (Matthew 20:28). See also (1 Timothy 2:6; Ephesians 5:2; Galatians 3:13; Revelation 5:9; 1 John 2:2).

Question 5.

Are the elect justified, until the Holy Spirit, in due time, actually applies Christ to them?

No. (Colossians 1:21-22; Titus 3:4-7).

Well then, do not the Antinomians err, who maintain, that the elect are justified from eternity; or when the price of redemption was paid?

Yes.

By what reasons are they confuted?

(1) Because, all that are justified, have been strangers and enemies to God, and children of wrath (Ephesians 2:3; Colossians 1:21; Titus 3:3; 1 Corinthians 6:10-11). (2) Because, none are justified, until they believe in Christ (Galatians 2:16), knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ.

Question 6.

Can those who are justified, by reason of their sins, fall under God's fatherly displeasure, and not have the light of his countenance restored to them, until they humble themselves, confess their sins, beg pardon, and renew their faith and repentance?

Yes (Psalm 89:31-33; Psalm 32:5; Psalm 51:7-12; Matthew 26:75; 1 Corinthians 11:30-32).

Well then, do not the Antinomians err, who maintain, that God's love, and favor, towards those, that are once-justified, cannot consist with his anger and chastisement towards them?

Yes.

By what reasons are they confuted?

(1) Because, Christ says, as many as I love, I rebuke and chasten (Revelation 3:19). (2) Because, David was chastened, for his adultery, and murder (2 Samuel 12:10). (3) Because, the Lord says, if my children forsake my law, and walk not in my judgments, then will I visit their transgressions, with the rod, and their iniquity with stripes (Psalm 89:30-31). (4) Because, God was provoked, with the sins of the Corinthians, for which he punished them (1 Corinthians 10:22; 1 Corinthians 11:30).

Question 7.

Is the justification of believers, under the Old Testament, one and the same in all respects with the justification of believers, under the New Testament?

Yes (Galatians 3:9, 13-14; Romans 4:22-24; Hebrews 13:8).

Well then, do not the Socinians err, who maintain, that the manner of justification, is not one, and the same, under both the Testaments?

Yes.

By what reasons are they confuted?

(1) Because, Abraham was justified by faith in Christ (Genesis 15:6), and he believed in the Lord, and it was counted to him for righteousness — that is, God of his mere grace, held him righteous, and justified that had no righteousness in himself, whereby to subsist and stand before his justice seat, and that through faith in his promises, and in the promised Mediator. (2) Because Isaiah teaches, that both himself and other believers were justified by the knowledge of Christ (Isaiah 53:11). (3) Because, the Holy Ghost expressly testifies, that Christ died for the believers under the Old Testament (Hebrews 9:15). (4) Because, the justification of believing Jews under the Old Testament, and believers under the New, are compared between themselves as equal (Acts 15:11).